Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 Set B

Please refer to Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 Set B with solutions below. The following CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science has been prepared as per the latest pattern and examination guidelines issued by CBSE. By practicing the Social Science Sample Paper for Class 10 students will be able to improve their understanding of the subject and get more marks.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper for Term 1

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)

1. Vienna Congress was convened in 1815 for what purpose?
(a) To declare completion of German Unification.
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe.
(c) To declare war against France.
(d) To start the process of Italian unification.

2. Which of the following is true with reference to Romanticism?
(a) Freedom of markets
(b) Concept of government by consent
(c) Cultural movement
(d) Freedom of the individual

3. Identify the first step introduced to unify Germany from the following options.
(a) Military alliances
(b) Zollverein
(c) Political alliances
(d) Carbonari

4. Which among the following claimed that true German culture was discovered among the common people?
(a) Louis Philippe
(b) Johann Gottfried Herder
(c) Karol Karpinski
(d) Carl Welcker

5. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option.
In Galicia the aristocracy spoke ………… .
(a) Magyar
(b) French
(c) Russian
(d) Polish

6. Choose the incorrect pair from the given options.
(a) Tamil Nadu- Mango
(b) Orange- Nagpur
(c) Pineapple- Meghalaya
(d) Grape- Maharashtra

7. Choose the feature which is not associated with Arid soils.
(a) These soils become cultivable after proper irrigation.
(b) The lower horizon of the soil is occupied by Kankar nodules.
(c) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
(d) In some areas the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained from these soils.

8. Which of the following is not a measure of soil conservation?
(a) Strip Cropping
(b) Shelter Belts
(c) Terrace Cultivation
(d) Overdrawing of groundwater

9. In which of the following state deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation?
(a) Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh
(b) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(c) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh
(d) All of these

10. Which among the following is/are the example of Biotic Resources?
(a) Human being
(b) Livestock
(c) Fisheries
(d) All of these

11. Which of the following is not a Majoritarian measure?
(a) Preferential policies to favour Sinhala community in jobs.
(b) A new Constitution to protect and promote Buddhism.
(c) Granting of citizenship to Sri Lankan Tamils.
(d) All of the above

12. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is not correct about democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
(c) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.
(d) In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-governance.

13. Which of the following reason of power sharing stress that the power sharing will bring out better outcomes?
(a) Moral
(b) Political
(c) Prudential
(d) Legitimate

14. Which of the following is a merit of the local government in India?
(a) It has uprooted the democracy at local level in our country.
(b) It has deepened the democracy in our country.
(c) It has failed in conducting regular elections of local bodies.
(d) None of the above

15. Identify the political reason/s behind the conflicts in Sri Lanka.
(a) Failure of non-government organisations
(b) Preferential policies of the government
(c) Absence of representation for weaker sections
(d) Unwillingness of political parties to resolve conflicts

16. Which of the following measure/s were adopted by the government under comprehensive land development programme?
(a) Institutional and Technical reforms
(b) Crop Insurance
(c) Establishment of Gramin Banks and Cooperative societies
(d) All of the above

17. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in which of the following year?
(a) 1991
(b) 1993
(c) 1996
(d) 1998

18. Which of the following is not a feature of commercial farming?
(a) It is used in areas of high population.
(b) Plantation is also a type of commercial agriculture.
(c) Most of the production is sold in the market.
(d) Higher doses of modern inputs like HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides are used to increase production.

19. The activities involved in tourism like guide, hotels, travel, food, etc are included in which sector of the economy?
(a) Public sector
(b) Tertiary sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) Primary sector

20. The sum of the total production of all goods and services in the three sectors are combinedly called as
(a) NDP
(b) GNI
(c) GDP
(d) NI

21. Which of the following crop is related to zaid crop?
(a) Watermelon
(b) Paddy
(c) Maize
(d) Bajra

22. The small and scattered units largely outside government control are in ……… .
(a) Public sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Private sector
(d) Primary sector

23. NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) was renamed after.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Rajiv Gandhi

24. If more number of children in an area fall in the BMI range of 15.5 to 17.5, then what does it show?
(a) Good health
(b) Nutritional deficiency
(c) Good standard of living
(d) Better medical facilities

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)

25. Coalition Government is formed by the two or more Political Parties.
Which of the following options best signifies this image related to coalition?

(a) Coalition government is a new form of Government in India.
(b) The ruling party and the opposition party form the coalition government.
(c) In the coalition government the leader decides every rule.
(d) The leader of the coalition keeps the partners of the government satisfied.

26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about the features of the economic situation which existed in Europe?
(i) Migration of population from rural to urban regions.
(ii) Small producers had to face stiff competition from England.
(iii) Industrial Revolution became more advanced in most countries of Europe.
(iv) Number of job seekers exceeded the employment opportunities.
Options
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)

27. What does Liberalism stands in economic sphere? Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) Freedom of markets.
(b) Control over markets.
(c) Imposition of restriction on the movement of goods across territories.
(d) Heavy tax imposition on goods and services.

28. Identify the vision of a society that is too ideal to actually exist.
(a) Absolutist
(b) Monarchy
(c) Utopian
(d) Autocratic

29. Identify the crop with the help of the clues given below.
• This crop is used as both food and fodder.
• It requires temperature from 21°C to 27°C.
• It is a kharif crop which grows well in old alluvial soil.
(a) Millets
(b) Maize
(c) Wheat
(d) Pulses

30. Which one of the following term is used to identify the old and new alluvial respectively?
(a) Khadar and Tarai
(b) Tarai and Bangar
(c) Bangar and Khadar
(d) Tarai and Duars

31. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
(a) B and C
(b) A and C
(c) A and D
(d) B and D

32. Which one of the following is the leguminous crop?
(a) Millets
(b) Pulses
(c) Maize
(d) Sugarcane

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Rubber is grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas.
Reason (R) It requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 100cm and temperature above 50°C.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following.

Codes
(a) A → 1, B → 3, C → 2, D → 4
(b) A → 2, B → 4, C → 3, D → 1
(c) A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2
(d) A → 4, B → 2, C → 1, D → 3

35. Why there is an enormous pressure on agricultural land in India? Choose the correct option.
(a) High density of population.
(b) Land holding size is very small.
(c) Farmers are unable to afford right techniques of farming.
(d) Lack of technology with the small farmers.

36. Identify the Power Sharing system with the help of the following information.
• Power is shared among different organs of the government.
• All the organs of the government are placed at the same level.
• It specifies the concept of checks and balances.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Community Government
(b) Vertical Division of Power
(c) Horizontal Division of Power
(d) Unitary form of Government

37. Identify the correct statement/s about the Civil War of Sri Lanka?
(i) Sri Lankan Tamils caused struggles because their demands of autonomous state were disapproved.
(ii) It caused a lot of bloodshed among the civilians and the military.
(iii) It ended in 2009.
(iv) It was fought between Sri Lankan Muslim Tamils and Buddhist Sinhalese.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

38. Identify the correct meaning of ‘custom barrier’ from the given options.
(i) It is a measure of limiting trade across borders of different cities and principalities.
(ii) It is a tax collected at airports to boost exports.
(iii) It is physical barrier between two cities.
(iv) It helps to decrease the price of the products.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Government needs to pay attention to aspects of human development such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor, food and nutrition.
Reason (R) Private sector can offer development in terms of providing welfare facilities like construction of dam.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Choose the correct pair from the following. (B)

41. Analyse the information given below and choose the correct option.
Laxmi owning about three hectares of unirrigated land dependent only on rain and growing crops like jowar and arhar. All seven members of her family work in the field throughout the year. You will see that everyone is working, none remains idle, but in actual fact their labour effort gets divided. Each one is doing some work but no one is fully employed.
(a) Overemployment
(b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Disguised unemployment
(d) Both (a) and (c)

42. Which of the following statement/s held that workers are exploited in the unorganised sector? Identify the correct option.
(i) There are no fixed number of working hours.
(ii) They do not get other allowances apart from the daily wages.
(iii) They can be asked to leave the job at any time.
(iv) Workers are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (iv)

43. Job of a teacher comes under which of the following sectors?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Industrial Sector

44. According to the Human Development Report of UNDP, 2018, the HDI ranking of countries are mentioned below.

Why India ranks low in Human Development Index despite of its huge size and population? Select the most suitable options from the following.
(a) Less investment in social infrastructure.
(b) Gender Inequality is still prevalent.
(c) Increasing Income Inequalities among different sections of the society.
(d) All of the above

45. In the question given below, there are two statementsmarked asAssertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) There is a need for protection and support of the workers in the unorganised sector.
Reason (R) Workers in an unorganised sector get paid really less and are heavily exploited.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

46. The goods that are used as raw materials for further production are known as
(a) Consumer goods
(b) Final goods
(c) Intermediate goods
(d) Material goods

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in the section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. Thus, the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the North and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the South.

47. What was France’s largest fear at the Congress of Vienna? Select the best suitable option from the following in reference to the context.
(a) Losing French Colonies
(b) War with the United States
(c) The Rise of Prussian Power
(d) Britain’s Challenge

48. Which one of the following was not implemented under the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) Restoration of Bourbon Dynasty.
(b) Setting up series of states on the boundaries of France.
(c) Restoration of monarchies.
(d) Diluting the German Confederation of 39 states.

49. Assertion (A) By the settlement of Vienna, Belgium was annexed to Holland to set up a powerful state in North-East border of France.
Reason (R) The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

50. Why was the Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815? Which one of the following is the prominent cause?
(a) To abolish tariff barriers.
(b) To divide the German Confederation of 39 states.
(c) To restore the monarchies.
(d) None of the above

51. Which of the following is not the result of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
(b) Poland was given to Russia.
(c) Prussia was handed over to England.
(d) None of the above

52. Which of the following is/are the guiding principles of the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Balance of power
(b) Principle of legitimacy
(c) Principle of fraternity
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Directions (Q). Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

In this sense, federations are contrasted with unitary governments. Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the Central Government. The Central Government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government. But in a federal system, the Central Government cannot order the state government to do something. State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the Central Government. Both these governments are separately answerable to the people.

53. In what sense federations are contrasted with unitary governments?
(a) Powers in the federations are not concentrated in single hands but distributed among the units.
(b) Powers in the federations are concentrated in single hands i.e. the Union Government.
(c) In a federation, constitution is flexible in nature.
(d) In a federation, there is uniformity of laws.

54. Which among the following is/are the features of the Federal State?
(a) The powers of the Central and State Governments are clearly laid down.
(b) It may become despotic when the rulers are not faithful as there is no check upon the exercise of these unlimited powers.
(c) It has an unwritten constitution.
(d) Constitution may be rigid or flexible.

55. Read the following statements and find the correct option from the given codes.
(i) In a Federal government, the constitution is supreme.
(ii) In a Federal government, the constitution may be written or unwritten.
(iii) In a Unitary government, there is no division of powers between centre and states.
(iv) Legislature may be bicameral or unicameral in unitary government.
Options
(a) Only (ii)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) All of these

56. Which of the following is a unitary state? Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) United States
(b) France
(c) Nigeria
(d) Venezuela

57. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Unitary government?
(a) The power of the Union (Parliament) to legislate on the matter included in the State List.
(b) The sub-units of the government are subordinate to the Central Government.
(c) There are two or more tiers of the government.
(d) Unitary Government has Independent Judiciary

58. Identify the benefits of unitary system from the given options.
(a) Government that can more easily promote national unity.
(b) Government that can easily work towards the common good.
(c) Government that can more easily be held accountable by its citizens.
(d) All of the above

Section-D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.

59. Identify the state which is marked as ‘A’where Tehri Dam is located.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Assam
(d) West Bengal

60. Which of the following crop is cultivated in the area which is marked as ‘B’.
(a) Rubber cultivation
(b) Wheat cultivation
(c) Tea cultivation
(d) Coffee cultivation