Please refer to Class 12 Chemistry Sample Paper Term 1 Set C with solutions below. The following CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry has been prepared as per the latest pattern and examination guidelines issued by CBSE. By practicing the Chemistry Sample Paper for Class 12 students will be able to improve their understanding of the subject and get more marks.
CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Sample Paper for Term 1
Section ‘A’
Q. 1. Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
(A) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
(B) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.
(C) Both are diprotic acids.
(D) Both are triprotic acids
Answer
A
Q. 2. Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(A) 2RX + 2Na → R—R + 2NaX
(B) RX + H2 → RH + HX
(C) RX + Mg → RMgX
(D) RX + KOH → ROH + KX
Answer
D
Q. 3. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is :
(A) CnH2n+2O
(B) CnH2nO2
(C) CnH2nO
(D) CnH2n+1O
Answer
A
Q. 4. Grignard reagent is prepared by the reaction between :
(A) magnesium and alkane
(B) magnesium and aromatic hydrocarbon
(C) zinc and alkyl halide
(D) magnesium and alkyl halide
Answer
D
Q. 5. Which one of the following on oxidation gives a ketone?
(A) Primary alcohol
(B) Secondary alcohol
(C) Tertiary alcohol
(D) All of these
Answer
B
Q. 6. Which of the following statement is not correct for nitrogen?
(A) Its electronegativity is very high.
(B) d-orbitals are available for bonding.
(C) It is a typical non-metal.
(D) Its molecular size is small.
Answer
B
Q. 7. The reaction is described as
(A) SE2
(B) SN1
(C) SN2
(D) SN0
Answer
C
Q. 8. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH, the product formed is :
(A) benzaldehyde
(B) salicylaldehyde
(C) salicylic acid
(D) benzoic acid
Answer
B
Q. 9. Which of the following phosphorus is the most reactive?
(A) Scarlet phosphorus
(B) White phosphorus
(C) Red phosphorus
(D) Violet phosphorus
Answer
B
Q. 10. The total number of tetrahedral voids in the face centred unit cell is _____.
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
Answer
B
Q. 11. PH4I + NaOH forms :
(A) PH3
(B) NH3
(C) P4O6
(D) P4O10
Answer
A
Q. 12. In a face-centered cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer
C
Q. 13. In the reaction :
Answer
C
Q. 14. Repeated use of which one of the following fertilizers would increase the acidity of the soil?
(A) Ammonium sulphate
(B) Superphosphate of lime
(C) Urea
(D) Potassium nitrate
Answer
A
Q. 15. Which of the following statements is not true about amorphous solids?
(A) On heating they may become crystalline at certain temperature.
(B) They may become crystalline on keeping for long time.
(C) Amorphous solids can be moulded by heating.
(D) They are anisotropic in nature.
Answer
D
Q. 16. The compound which does not react with sodium is :
(A) CH3COOH
(B) CH3CHOHCH3
(C) C2H5OH
(D) CH3OCH3
Answer
D
Q. 17. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH yields.
(A) o-Cresol
(B) m-Cresol
(C) 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene
(D) Benzyl alcohol
Answer
D
Q. 18. Consider the reaction, CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN → CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr. This reaction will be the fastest in:
(A) Ethanol
(B) Methanol
(C) N, N‘-dimethyl formamide
(D) Water
Answer
C
Q. 19. The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves :
(A) addition reaction
(B) substitution reaction
(C) dehydrohalogenation reaction
(D) rearrangement reaction
Answer
B
Q. 20. Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Bismuth
(C) Antimony
(D) Arsenic
Answer
A
Q. 21. Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and not isostructural ?
(A) IF3, XeF2
(B) BeCl2, XeF2
(C) Tel2, XeF2
(D) IBr2 XeF2− ,
Answer
D
Q. 22. In the electrochemical cell :
Zn|ZnSO4 (0.01M)| |CuSO4 (1.0 M)| Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2 ? (Given, RTF = 0.059)
(A) E2 = 0 ≠ E1
(B) E1 = E2
(C) E1 < E2
(D) E1 > E2
Answer
D
Q. 23. Which is the incorrect statement ?
(A) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and anions are almost equal
(B) FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency defect
(C) Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky’s defect
(D) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal
Answer
A
Q. 24. Consider the reactions :
Identify A, X, Y and Z
(A) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z-Hydrazone
(B) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate ion, Z-hydrazine
(C) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, Z-Semicarbazide
(D) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone
Answer
D
Section ‘B’
Q. 25. A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO3– ion. It is due to the formation of
(A) [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+
(B) FeSO4.NO2
(C) [Fe(H2O)4(NO)2]2+
(D) FeSO4.HNO3
Answer
A
Q. 26. Phenol is less acidic than what of the below:
(A) ethanol
(B) o-nitrophenol
(C) o-methylphenol
(D) o-methoxyphenol
Answer
B
Q. 27. Which of the following alcohols will yield the corresponding alkyl chloride on reaction with concentrated HCl at room temperature?
Answer
D
Q. 28. Choose the correct two functional groups present in typical carbohydrate :
(A) —OH and —COOH
(B) —OH and —CHO
(C) —CHO and —COOH
(D) >C = O and —OH
Answer
D
Q. 29. What is true for monosaccharides:
(A) They always contain 6 to 10 carbon atoms.
(B) They always contain five carbon atoms.
(C) They may contain 3 to 7 carbon atoms.
(D) They always contain four carbon atoms.
Answer
C
Q. 30. Which of the following compounds are/is aromatic alcohol?
(A) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(B) (a), (d)
(C) (b), (c)
(D) (a)
Answer
C
Q. 31. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is :
Answer
B
Q. 32. Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions :
Answer
B
Q. 33. Which of the following is most acidic?
(A) Benzyl alcohol
(B) Cyclohexanol
(C) Phenol
(D) m-Chlorophenol
Answer
D
Q. 34. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (C) chloride giving ortho and para halo compounds. The reaction is
(A) electrophilic elimination reaction
(B) electrophilic substitution reaction
(C) free radical addition reaction
(D) nucleophilic substitution reaction
Answer
B
Q. 35. In qualitative analysis when H2S is passed through an aqueous solution of salt acidified with dil.
HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO3 , it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution gives _________.
(A) deep blue precipitate of Cu(OH)2
(B) deep blue solution of [Cu (NH3 )4]2+
(C) deep blue solution of Cu(NO3)2
(D) deep blue solution of Cu(OH)2 .Cu(NO3)2
Answer
B
Q. 36. Reaction between acetone and methyl magnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
(A) Sec. butyl alcohol
(B) Tert. butyl alcohol
(C) Isobutyl alcohol
(D) Isopropyl alcohol
Answer
B
Q. 37. Which of the following elements can be involved in pp – dp bonding?
(A) Carbon
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Boron
Answer
C
Q. 38. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is :
Answer
A
Q. 39. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids
should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
(A) HF
(B) HCl
(C) HBr
(D) HI
Answer
A
Q. 40. Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in water?
(A) C6H5OH
(B) C6H5CH2OH
(C) (CH3)3COH
(D) C2H5OH
Answer
A
Q. 41. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction?
(A) 1° > 2° > 3°
(B) 1° < 2° > 3°
(C) 3° > 2° > 1°
(D) 3° > 1° > 2°
Answer
C
Q. 42. A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the compund is :
(A) C3A2
(B) C3A4
(C) C4A3
(D) C2A3
Answer
B
Q. 43. How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer
A
Q. 44. Which reagent will you use for the following reaction?
(A) Cl2/UV light
(B) NaCl + H2SO4
(C) Cl2 gas in dark
(D) Cl2 gas in the presence of iron in dark
Answer
C
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements, but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement, but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement, but reason is correct statement
Q. 45 . Assertion : Boron always forms covalent bond.
Reason : The small size of B3+ favours formation of covalent bond.
Answer
A
Q. 46. Assertion : Molecular mass of polymers cannot be calculated using boiling point or freezing point methods.
Reason : Polymer’s solution does not possess a constant boiling point or freezing point.
Answer
B
Q. 47. Assertion : The elements of group 18 are called inert gas.
Reason : The elements of group 18 are monoatomic in nature.
Answer
A
Q. 48. Assertion : Solubility of an alcohols in water decreases with increase in molecular weight.
Reason : The relative proportion of the hydrocarbon part in alcohols increases with increasing molecular weight which permits enhanced hydrogen bonding with water..
Answer
C
Q. 49. Assertion : Pb4+ compounds are stronger oxidising agents than Sn4+ compounds.
Reason : The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier members of the group due to ‘inert pair effect’.
Answer
C
Section ‘C’
Q. 50. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :
Answer
D
Q. 51. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to
(A) Low oxidation state of phosphorus
(B) Presence of two –OH groups and one P–H
(C) Presence of one –OH group and two P–H bonds
(D) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
Answer
C
Q. 52. Match the following :
Oxide Nature
(a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer
A
Case-1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow question 53-55.
In ideally ionic structures, the coordination numbers of the ions are determined by electrostatic considerations. Cations surround themselves with as many anions as possible and vice versa. This maximizes the attractions between neighbouring ions of opposite charge and hence maximizes the lattice energy of the crystal. This requirement led to the formulation of the radius ratio rule for ionic structures in which the ions and the structure adopted for a particular compound depend on the relative sizes of the ions. Thus, for the stable ionic crystalline structures, there is definite radius ratio limit for a cation to fit perfectly in the lattice of anions, called radius ratio rule. This depends upon the ratio of radii of two types of ions, r+/r–.
This ratio for coordination numbers 3, 4, 6 and 8 are respectively 0.155 – 0.225, 0.225 -0.414, 0.414 –0.732 and 0.732 – 1.000. The coordination number of ionic solids also depends upon temperature and pressure. On applying high pressure, coordination number increases. On the other hand, on applying high temperature, it decreases.
Q. 53. The ionic radii of K+, Rb+ and Br– are 137, 148 and 195 pm. The coordination number of cation in RbBr and KBr structures are respectively
(A) 8,6
(B) 6,4
(C) 6,8
(D) 4,6
Answer
C
Q. 54. For a coordination number 4, the maximum limiting radius ratio is
(A) 0.414
(B) 0.732
(C) 0.225
(D) 0.155
Answer
C
Q. 55. If the radius of Na+ is 95 pm and that of Cl– ion is 181 pm, the coordination number of Na+ ion is
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 12
Answer
A
