Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 Set C

Please refer to Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 Set C with solutions below. The following CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science has been prepared as per the latest pattern and examination guidelines issued by CBSE. By practicing the Social Science Sample Paper for Class 10 students will be able to improve their understanding of the subject and get more marks.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper for Term 1

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)

1. Which of the following statement is correct about the German Confederation?
(a) Did not include Austria and Prussia.
(b) Included non-German territories in Poland and Hungary.
(c) Was a loose organisation of thirty-nine states.
(d) Had real executive power.

2. Cavour prepared for the first conflict between Italy and Austria by diplomatic agreements with which of the following countries?
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) Prussia

3. The July Revolution took place in which of the following years? Identify from the given options.
(a) 1815
(b) 1826
(c) 1830
(d) 1832

4. How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe?
(a) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty.
(b) Laying out the balance of power between all the great powers in Europe.
(c) By giving power to the German confederation.
(d) Austria was not given control of Northern Italy.

5. How the new artists depicted liberty during the French Revolution? Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) As a female figure with a torch of enlightenment in one hand and the charter of rights of man in the other hand.
(b) Rays of the Rising Sun.
(c) Blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales.
(d) The gold red and black tricolour flag.

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops which are grown in Laterite soil.
(a) Rubber and Sugarcane
(b) Tea and Coffee
(c) Barley and Grain
(d) Cotton and Jute

7. Tea, coffee, banana, ………… and rubber are a major crop which comes under …………… .
(a) Sugarcane, shifting agriculture
(b) Sugarcane, plantation farming
(c) Bajra, shifting agriculture
(d) Wheat, horticulture

8. Identify the major producer state of Rubber from the given options.
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Assam
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

9. An oil reserve has been discovered in an Ocean. The oil reserve is 20 km from the coast of India. Classify the oil reserve.
(a) Abiotic Resource
(b) Community Owned Resource
(c) International Resource
(d) National Resource

10. What is common between the land degradation caused in Jharkhand and Odisha?
(a) The subsoil in these areas is very thin.
(b) Their resources are completely exhausted due to land degradation.
(c) It is caused by mining in both places.
(d) It is caused due to deforestation in both places.

11. Which of the following characteristics is true about Bangar soil?
(a) It is the most fertile alluvial soil.
(b) It is a new alluvial.
(c) It has higher concentration of Kanker nodules than the Khadar nodules.
(d) It has smaller particles than Khadar soil.

12. What percentage of land in India consists of fertile plains?
(a) 38%
(b) 43%
(c) 46%
(d) 61%

13. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the sources of revenue in a federal form of system?
(a) The Centre has no financial autonomy.
(b) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified in the constitution to ensure its financial autonomy.
(c) States are dependent for revenue on the Central Government.
(d) States have no financial powers.

14. Australia is an example of which type of federation?
(a) Holding-together
(b) Coming-together
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Can’t say

15. Which of the following is a major hurdle that the local government faces in India?
(a) Villagers do not trust them properly.
(b) States do not give them much power.
(c) Elections are held regularly.
(d) There is no one to contest elections.

16. The state government has powers of its own for which …………… .
(a) It is answerable to the people.
(b) It is answerable to the regional and local governments.
(c) It is answerable to the Central Government.
(d) It is answerable to the elite members of the society.

17. In which of the following years the regional governments were given constitutional powers in Belgium?
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1993
(d) 1994

18. Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Which of the following holds true in the case of India?
(i) The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.
(ii) Language based states have divided us by making everyone conscious of their language.
(iii) The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over all other languages.
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) All of these

19. In which of the following states groundwater overuse is particularly found?
(a) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(b) Nagaland and Assam
(c) Punjab and Western UP
(d) Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand

20. Which of the following term is defined as the average expected length of life of a person at the time of the birth?
(a) Birth Rate
(b) Life Expectancy
(c) Life Span
(d) Mortality Rate

21. Which type of agriculture practice is famous in North-Eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland?
(a) Slash and Burn farming
(b) Commercial farming
(c) Jhumming
(d) Subsistence farming

22. Which of the following objectives is not mentioned in the MNREGA 2005?
(a) To give at least 100 days of guaranteed work in rural areas.
(b) It is required to provide employment within 10 km of an applicant’s home and to pay maximum wages.
(c) If government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowances to the people.
(d) To implement ‘Right to work’.

23. In which state of India ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is called ‘pamlou’?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland

24. Identify the term which is used for the average income of a person.
(a) Total Income
(b) Per Capita Income
(c) Gross Income
(d) National Income

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)

25. In the given image, the courier of Rhineland loses all that he has on his way home from Leipzig. Study the picture and answer the question that follows.

Who is represented as a postman? Identify from the given options.
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte
(b) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(c) Otto von Bismarck
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini

26. Which of the following option/s is/are correct about Nation-states?
(i) Citizens share a common sense of shared identity or history.
(ii) Nation-state is a state ruled by one absolute ruler.
(iii) Commonness is forged through linguistic factor only.
(iv) Nation-states are directly ruled by people based on hetrogenisation of society.
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (iv)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)

27. Which of the following incidents mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite class across Europe?
(a) German Unification
(b) Greek War of Independence
(c) Unification of Italy
(d) Unification of Britain

28. Which among the following statements is/are correct about plantations?
(i) The plantations have a large area and they are usually found in areas of low density of population.
(ii) It is capital intensive.
(iii) The plantation farming has been an agricultural practice primarily in tropical and sub-tropical regions.
Select the correct codes from the options given below.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) All of these

29. Who was proclaimed as the ruler of United Italy in 1861? Identify from the given options.
(a) King Wilhelm IV
(b) Kaiser William I
(c) Victor Emmanuel II
(d) Cavour

30. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
(i) Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
(ii) It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
(iii) The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
(iv) No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
Codes
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

31. What do the saints, angels and Christ symbolise in the Utopian vision?
(a) Equality among the people
(b) Fraternity among the people
(c) Resentment among the nations
(d) Freedom of nations

32. Which of the following language was spoken for purposes of diplomacy in the mid-18th Century in Europe?
(a) German
(b) English
(c) French
(d) Spanish

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Serfdom and bonded labour were abolished in Habsburg dominion and Russia.
Reason (R) Monarchs had realised that revolution could be resisted only by granting concessions to the liberal nationalist rebels.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. In commercial farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. Identify which state the given crops belong to

(a) A → 1, B → 3, C → 4, D → 2
(b) A → 2, B → 4, C → 1, D → 3
(c) A → 3, B → 1, C → 2, D → 4
(d) A → 4, B → 2, C → 3, D → 1

35. Which of the following farming practice depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions?
(a) Commercial farming
(b) Intensive subsistence farming
(c) Plantation farming
(d) Primitive subsistence farming

36. States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371), under which context do they get these provisions?
(i) Trade and commerce
(ii) Protection of land rights of indigenous people
(iii) Special provisions for agriculture
(iv) For defence purposes
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)

37. Identify the region/area of India with the help of the following information.
• The Central Government has special powers in running these areas.
• These areas are too small to become an independent state.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Towns
(b) Union Territories
(c) District
(d) City

38. Identify the correct statements/s regarding the age of revolutions.
(i) Growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1821.
(ii) Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from many West Europeans.
(iii) Poets and artists mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim Empire.
(iv) The Treaty of Constantinople of 1830 recognised Greece as an independent nation.
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (iv)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Regional governments can withdraw power from the Central Government.
Reason (R) Regional governments were given constitutional powers that were no longer dependent on the Central Government.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Choose the correct option from the following.

41. Read the given data and calculate the average income of the family.

(a) 8000
(b) 9000
(c) 10000
(d) 12000

42. Which among the following activities can be included in the Primary sector?
(a) Giving loans to the farmer.
(b) Providing storage facility for the grains.
(c) Cultivating sugarcane.
(d) Making sugar from sugarcane.

43. Under which economic sector does the production of a community through the natural process come?
(a) Public sector
(b) Primary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Tertiary sector

44. According to the Human Development Report of UNDP, 2018, the HDI ranking of countries are mentioned below.

Why Sri Lanka has a better rank than India in Human Development Report for 2018? Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) The per capita income of Sri Lanka is higher than in India.
(b) Sri Lanka has low population as compared to India.
(c) The literacy ratio i.e. enrolment ratio in all levels of schools in Sri Lanka is comparatively better than India.
(d) Both (a) and (c)

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularised.
Reason (R) Recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of nation-building.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

46. Read the information given below and select the correct option.
The production of goods and services in all the three sectors is done on a large scale. The three sectors involve a very large number of people working under them. To assess the level of development in an economy, it is important to compare and contrast the production and level of employment of these sectors. Not all sectors contribute equally. One sector generally plays a dominant role. The contribution of each sector can be accessed on the basis of GDP and changes in the sectors over the years.

Primary sector has become important for this reason
(a) This sector contributes about 25% to the GDP of India.
(b) It ensures security of employment.
(c) Only final goods and services are to be considered while calculating GDP.
(d) It provides cheap loans to the self-employed people.

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

They seek things that are most important for them, i.e., that which can fulfill their aspirations or desires. In fact, at times, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work. Her brother may not like this. Similarly, to get more electricity, industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced – such as tribals. They might resent this and may prefer small check dams or tanks to irrigate their land. So, two things are quite clear: one, different persons can have different developmental goals and two, what may be development for one may not be development for the other. It may even be destructive for the other.

47. Which among the following is the development goal of a middle income person?
(a) Increase in real income
(b) Reduction in poverty
(c) Women empowerment
(d) Right to education

48. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Development involves thinking about the ways in which we can work towards achieving goals of holistic growth.
Reason (R) Holistic growth is economic growth.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

49. If more number of women gets employment how it will change the society?
(a) Dignity of women in the household
(b) Reduction in gender inequality
(c) More income in the household
(d) All of these

50. Pick out the cause that enhances the development goal of an industrialist.
(a) Preventing the planting of trees
(b) Protest against building dams
(c) Good working atmosphere
(d) Need of factories and power supply

51. Which of the following should be the goal of an uneducated youth?
(a) Learn skill
(b) Get educated
(c) Get employment
(d) Both (a) and (b)

52. Which of the following statements is correct about developmental goals?
(a) They are same for all the citizens of a country.
(b) They are different and sometimes even contradictory for different groups and people.
(c) There are no developmental goals for poor people.
(d) Developmental goals do not matter.

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders were sensitive to their language and culture. They felt that the constitution and between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time. The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980’s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelum (state) in Northern and Eastern parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a Civil War. As a result, thousands of people of both the communities have been killed. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods.

53. What was the most serious demand of the Sri Lankan Tamils which resulted in a Civil War in Sri Lanka? Choose the correct statement/s from the given options:
(i) Reservation of Jobs for Tamils.
(ii) Recognition of Tamil as an official language.
(iii) Creation of an Independent Tamil Eelum.
(iv) Creation of Federation with autonomy to Tamils.
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Only (iv)

54. Which form of government is prevalent in Sri Lanka? Identify from the given options.
(a) Federal Government
(b) Unitary Government
(c) Community Government
(d) None of these

55. What kinds of measures were adopted by the Government of Sri Lanka? Identify from the given options.
(a) Communitarian
(b) Majoritarian
(c) Democratic
(d) Political

56. Tamilians during 1980’s formed several political organisations. Identify the reason behind this from the given options.
(a) Their demand for separate state was denied.
(b) Their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied.
(c) Their demand for separate election to provinces populated by the Tamils was denied.
(d) None of the above

57. What is the Political reason behind the conflicts in Sri Lanka?Choose the correct option.
(a) Failure of non-government organisations.
(b) Absence of minority representation.
(c) Preferential policies of the government.
(d) Unwillingness of parties to resolve conflicts.

58. Which of the following measures does not establish Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala is the only official language.
(b) Preferential policies for government jobs.
(c) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.
(d) The state shall protect and foster Buddhism.

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.

59. In the given map a crop growing region/area has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the crop and choose the correct option.
(a) Wheat
(b) Rubber
(c) Jute
(d) Tea

60. In the given map a region/area has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the dam located in the region and choose the correct option.
(a) Sardar Sarovar Dam
(b) Hirakud Dam
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
(d) Bhakra Nangal Dam